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Written by Dr. Daniel Fraser (MBBS, FRACP) – Physician
Question 1
Emily, a 28-year-old previously healthy woman, presents to your clinic with a 1-week history of spontaneous bruising on her arms and petechiae on her legs. She reports menorrhagia over the last two cycles but denies any fever, joint pain, recent illness, or medication changes aside from regular use of a combined oral contraceptive pill. There is no family history of bleeding disorders. On examination, there is no hepatosplenomegaly or lymphadenopathy. Initial blood tests reveal:
- Hemoglobin: 130 g/L
- WBC count: 6.5 × 10⁹/L
- Platelets: 18 × 10⁹/L
- PT/aPTT: normal
- LFTs: normal
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Acute leukemia
B) Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
C) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
D) Aplastic anemia
E) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Question 2
James, a 70-year-old man, is hospitalized with a proximal deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and started on therapeutic-dose unfractionated heparin. On day 6 of heparin therapy, his platelet count decreases from 210 × 10⁹/L to 85 × 10⁹/L. He has no active bleeding. However, Doppler ultrasound now reveals a new thrombus in the left popliteal vein. He is afebrile and hemodynamically stable. There is no history of autoimmune disease or prior thrombocytopenia.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Continue heparin and monitor platelet count
B) Transfuse platelets
C) Stop heparin and start warfarin immediately
D) Stop heparin and initiate a direct thrombin inhibitor
E) Administer corticosteroids
Question 3
Fatima, a 35-year-old woman, presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and fatigue. Her family reports she had fever and malaise for 2 days. On examination, she is disoriented with petechial rashes on her lower limbs. Blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse is 98 bpm, and temperature is 38.1°C. Laboratory investigations show:
- Hemoglobin: 85 g/L
- Platelets: 22 × 10⁹/L
- LDH: markedly elevated
- Peripheral blood film: schistocytes present
- Creatinine: 95 µmol/L
- Coagulation profile: normal PT and aPTT
What is the most appropriate immediate management?
A) Platelet transfusion
B) High-dose corticosteroids
C) Plasma exchange therapy
D) Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)
E) Immediate splenectomy
